are you saying that 90% of people didn't know they had the disease, and because 90% of vaccine recipients didn't get the disease, you are equating the two? If so, that's incorrect, as there is very little chance that Pfizer will have looked them over, said 'can you smell this? taste this? no cough? Great, off you go'. They will have been tested.
Or are you saying that 90% of people who had the virus developed an immune response, which would be the same as the vaccine, but I honestly don't know if it is true or not. If you do have that information, I'd love to see it.
Tested means RT-PCR test +ve and relevant antigens present in serology, I presume?
There cannot be an absolutely knowable number of those infected with the virus but not requiring medical intervention. But using CFR and ICU admissions as a % of populace, it must be high 90s.
Circling back to the fact that the virus has been round the world and back, that huge number of people not requiring medical intervention either developed immunity or it is unrequired n[natural defenses sufficient].
That seems to amount to the same thing. I.e. most rebuff this virus, by whatever response, so the vaccine is not required.
Whitty stated the vaccine relies on herd immunity. Its deployment merely accelerates that natural effect.
If 90% garnered that status without the vaccine [not an unreasonable extrapolation of the sum of known data] then I cannot see a rationale for its mass deployment.




